A nurse is performing the history and physical examination of a client with Parkinson's disease. The following assessments identified by the nurse support this diagnosis:
Nonintention tremors.
Masklike facial expression.
Rigidity to passive movement.
What is Parkinson's disease?Parkinson's disease is a chronic condition that affects both the neurological system and the bodily components that are under the control of the nervous system.Symptoms emerge gradually. The initial sign might be a little tremor in only one hand.Although tremors are typical, the disease might also make you stiff or move more slowly.Your face may be expressionless in the early stages of Parkinson's disease.You might not swing your arms while you walk. Your speech might become slurred or dull.As your illness advances over time, your Parkinson's disease symptoms get worse.Despite the fact that there is no cure for Parkinson's disease, medicines may greatly reduce your symptoms.On rare occasions, your doctor may advise surgery to control specific brain areas and alleviate your symptoms.To learn more about Parkinson's disease, refer to the following link:
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the ob/gyn clinic for her yearly examination. She tells the nurse that she wants to renew the prescription for her birth control pills. During the assessment interview, the client tells the nurse that she smokes ½ pack a day and drinks several drinks a day. What should the nurse include in client education?
Women older than 40 years who smoke should not use birth control pills.Tobacco is contraindicated for any patient age 40 years or older who uses hormonal contraceptives. The combination of tobacco and hormonal contraceptives increases risk for vascular problems (e.g., deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary emboli) as well as risk for cardiovascular incident. Even light or "social" smoking doubles a female patient's risk of cardiovascular mortality.
Sam has been diagnosed with having pulmonary edema. Which heart valve is most likely malfunctioning and not closing properly?.
The mediastinum contains all of the following except the? trachea. venae cavae. right lung. esophagus.
Mediastinum is the chest region. Thus, right lung is the correct answer.
What is mediastinum?Anatomically, mediastinum is the part in the thoracic cavity that holds heart, trachea and oesophagus.
Mediastinum is the area between the lungs. The lungs are anatomically not a part of mediastinum.
Mediastinum is surrounded by a loose connective tissue and protects the structures of the thoracic region.
Large blood vessels and lymph nodes are also the part of mediastinum.
Mediastinum is divided into four main compartments:
SuperiorAnteriorMiddlePosteriorEach of these compartments in the mediastinum support different organs, arteries, veins, lymphatics and nerves.
Mediastinum is important as it can be pathologically affected. For example, cancer or tumour in mediastinum are quite common.
Mediastinum can also be under the attack of many infections.
Therefore, mediastinum is clinically significant structure.
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When checking a conscious adult victim, you should interview bystanders and the victim and then?
You must then check the person from head to toe is the next step after checking a conscious adult victim and interview bystanders.
You can start looking for additional problems that could require treatment if the individual is aware and doesn't have any ailments that pose a life threatening concern.
Gently tap the individual to see whether they are cognizant, then inquire as to their well-being. If you don't get a response, there can be a problem that could endanger your life. A responsive individual who can talk or weep is one who is cognizant, breathing, has an unblocked airway, and has a pulse.
Two fundamental phases are involved in checking a conscious person who does not now face a life-threatening situation: interviewing both the person and bystanders, and checking the person from head to toe.
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Following enrollment the client will hear from us within approximately 14 days of his or her acceptance to the plan true or false
An enrollment system, to put it simply, integrates all of the actions that are involved in the enrollment process into one system.
In this manner, both online and offline activities take place in the same location.
The prospects were discussed, along with the web pages they were visiting, their interests and motives, their personal information, and the meetings they had scheduled, to name a few.
An enrollment system's main goal is to assist admission teams in ultimately enrolling more students.
Why Enrollment Systems Are Important:
an opportunity to face off against other applicantsRespond to queries more quickly than everLearn more about the enrolment system here:
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Your question does not seem to be understandable. Please refer to the following question as an alternative question to understand the concept:
What is an enrollment system and why does it matter?
A client with diagnosis of aids has developed pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. what will be important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan?
The nurse should Wear a gown and gloves when assisting the client with personal hygiene.
What is AIDS?A group of diseases caused by infection with the retrovirus known as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), including HIV infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS). After the initial infection, a person may not exhibit any symptoms or may experience a brief period of influenza-like illness. Typically, a long period of incubation without symptoms follows. The risk of contracting common illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB), other opportunistic infections, and tumors—all of which are uncommon in people with healthy immune systems—increases as the infection progresses because it interferes with the immune system more. These post-infection symptoms are referred to as "acquired immunodeficiency syndrome" (AIDS). Unintentional weight loss is also frequently associated with this time period.
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A potential adverse effect of lower blood glucose for people with diabetes is hypoglycemia. true or false
The statement "A potential adverse effect of lower blood glucose for people with diabetes is hypoglycemia." is true.
Your blood sugar (glucose) level is below the normal range if you have hypoglycemia. Your body uses glucose as its primary energy source.
Hypoglycemia and diabetes management frequently go hand in hand. However, persons without diabetes might have low blood sugar due to a number of ailments and other medications.
Treating hypoglycemia urgently is necessary. A fasting blood sugar reading of 70 mg/dL, or 3.9 mmol/L, or lower should be seen as a warning sign for hypoglycemia in many people. Your figures, however, could be different.
The goal of treatment is to lower your blood sugar as rapidly as possible, either with a high-sugar meal or beverage or by taking medication. It is necessary to determine and address the source of hypoglycemia for long-term therapy.
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The term atresia describes the congenital absence of a normal body opening or the failure of a structure to be tubular. True or false?.
The statement "The term atresia describes the congenital absence of a normal body opening or the failure of a structure to be tubular" is true.
Atresia is an apparent lack of a normal opening, or failure of a structure to be tubular. Many different bodily structures are susceptible to atresia. For instance, esophageal atresia is a birth condition in which a portion of the esophagus is not hollow, and an/al atresia is a birth abnormality in which the intestine's lower end lacks a hole.
It is a phrase used in medicine to describe bodily parts that are tubular in form but do not have a typical aperture or the capacity to let substances to move through them. It may affect the esophagus, the anus, or other blood arteries throughout the body.
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When mary receives a meal on a large plate in a restaurant, she is more likely to eat larger portions and her estimate of the kilocalories of the meal is likely to?
Mary is most likely to underestimate the number of kilocalories that she is consuming.
The number of calories a person consumes in a day is important to track the weight gain or weight loss of a person.
For women, the doctors recommend that the calorie intake should be 1,600 calories to 2,400 calories in a day.
Portion size plays an important role in the reduction of calorie taking. When you eat from a large plate, the food in it seems to be lesser than it actually is due to the wideness of the plate. Hence, a person can underestimate the number of calories when eating from a large plate.
In order to reduce weight, it is recommended to eat meals from smaller plates as the plate seems fuller and hence a person consumes lesser calories.
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Sally has blood type b and has a child with blood type o. In a paternity test which blood type would exclude a man as the father of the child?.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
Over the past three decades, daily calorie consumption by americans has? decreased slightly. increased significantly. primarily come from junk foods. remained about the same.
Daily calorie consumption by Americans over the past three decades, has basically increased significantly. Hence, the option which will be correct is option B.
Your age, sex, height, present weight, level of activity, and metabolic health all have an impact on how many calories are recommended for you to consume each day.
When attempting to lose weight, it's essential to create a calorie deficit by either eating less calories than usual or exercising more. Some folks choose to combine the two by cutting back on their meals while increasing their exercise.
Make sure you are consuming enough calories to provide your body with the nutrition it requires even if you are trying to lose weight. The term Sustainability is the most crucial component of any weight loss approach. This is why many professionals advise to loss weight so as be healthy.
For instance, several fat-loss regimens advise keeping your daily calorie consumption to between 1,000 and 1,200, which is insufficient for the majority of healthy persons.
Too much calorie restriction has a number of detrimental side effects and raises your chance of developing nutritional deficiencies. Additionally, it causes metabolic alterations that make long-term weight maintenance challenging.
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A patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level with a painful intervertebral disc displacement had a cervical discectomy, corpectomy, allograft from C5 to C7, and placement of instrumentation (a 34-mm plate from C5 to C7). A. M50. 23, M48. 02, M54. 2 B B. M48. 02, S13. 171 C C. M48. 02, M50. 23 D D. M54. 2, M50. 30
A patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level with a painful intervertebral disc displacement had a cervical discectomy, corpectomy, allograft from C5 to C7, and placement of instrumentation (a 34-mm plate from C5 to C7).
Answer: C. M48.02, M50.23
Patient with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level instrumental placement of instrumental M48.02, M50.23, hence option c is correct.
What is spinal stenosis?Although ACDF is considered a safe operation with very few consequences, certain complications can be substantial and linger for several weeks to months.
Treatments, if months of therapy have not eased the symptoms and the stenosis is severe, surgery to enlarge the spinal canal may be required. Because bone continues to degrade, even successful surgery may necessitate further therapy years later.
You might expect your neck to be stiff and uncomfortable after surgery. This should become better in the weeks following surgery.
Therefore instrumental M48.02, and M50.23, with spinal stenosis at the C5-C7 level, hence option c is correct.
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What law gives law enforcement agencies greater power to monitor electronic and other communications with fewer checks?
The law is the USA Patriot Act that gives law enforcement agencies greater power to monitor electronic and other communications with fewer checks.
The USA PATRIOT Act aims to prevent and punish acts of terrorism both domestically and abroad, as well as to improve law enforcement's investigative resources, which include:
1. to improve U.S. efforts to stop, uncover, and prosecute international money laundering and terrorism funding;
2. to provide foreign financial institutions, foreign governments, and groups of international transactions that might be abused by criminals additional scrutiny;
3. requiring possible money laundering to be reported by all eligible financial services industry participants;
4. In order to expedite the return of stolen assets to their rightful owners—countries whose citizens they originally belonged—and to tighten policies that prohibit corrupt foreign officials from using the U.S. financial system for personal advantage,
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The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment. what should be included in the preparation of the client? select all that apply.
Confirm Identity
The client's identity must be verified by the nurse using the identity band and two identifiers before beginning any procedure (name, date of birth, or medical identification number). The nurse should also identify themselves and go over the procedure.
What do you understand by physical assessment?The nurse can get a thorough evaluation of the patient thanks to an organized physical examination. Information-gathering methods include observation/inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation.
Basic physical assessment guidelines include reviewing the perinatal history for any possible pathology, evaluating the infant's colour for any possible pathology, auscultating only in a quiet setting, keeping the infant warm during examination, having the necessary tools on hand, and calming the infant before.
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the nurse is preparing to administer ear drops to a client who has impacted cerumen. before administering the drops, the nurse will assess the client for which contraindications? select all that apply.
Allergy to medication, Evidence of a fungal infection, and Conductive hearing loss in the affected ear.
In accordance with the panel's strong recommendations, physicians should treat cerumen impaction that results in patient-reported symptoms or, as appropriate, symptoms that interfere with clinical evaluation. The panel notes that clinicians should: 1) diagnose cerumen impaction if cerumen accumulation is associated with symptoms, interferes with evaluation of the ear in need of cerumen accumulation (the ear canal or tympanic membrane), or both; and 2) history and/or physical examination evaluation of factors that modify impaction management in patients with cerumen. During the visit, the physician should test the hearing aid patient for earwax impaction (testing no more frequently than every 3 months is considered necessary). 4) Clinicians should provide appropriate interventions for patients with cerumen impaction. This may include one or more of cleaning, cermenolytics, or non-cleaning manual removal.Therefore, there can be a number of contraindications in the given case.
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After a laryngectomy, a client experiences frequent coughing episodes and copious production of secretions. the nurse would explain that the symptoms are the result of which condition?
The symptoms are the result of reaction of the mucous membrane to air that is dry and cool.
What is laryngectomy ?Laryngectomy is the careful evacuation of the larynx. The larynx is the piece of your throat that houses your vocal strings, which permit you to deliver sound. The larynx associates your nose and mouth to your lungs. It likewise safeguards your breathing framework by keeping the things you eat or savor your throat and out of your lungs.
In the event that you have a laryngectomy, it will influence your talking, gulping, and relaxing. You'll have to learn better approaches to play out each of the three undertakings after medical procedure.
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The projection at the inferior end of the greater sciatic notch is the ischial spine. True or false?.
Answer:
true.
Explanation:
The client asks the nurse if they can crush all of their medications. which medication will the nurse inform the client cannot be crushed?
The tablets and capsules with the following words/letters in their names should never be crushed, opened, chewed:
CR/ChronoEC/ENLAMR/Re*tard/Slow/ContinusSASR/Dur/DuralXLDrug delivery methods have grown more intricate. Tablets and capsules may be coated with specific materials, such as "sugar," or they may be made to change the pace at which a medicine is delivered into the body.
Before selecting if it is safe or acceptable to crush pills or open capsules, it is crucial to comprehend the process and the reasoning behind it. frequently distinguishable by two letters at the end of the name, such as M/R, LA, SA, CR, XL, or SR.
The mechanism for reducing absorption may be harmed if the drug is changed because these medications are meant to be delivered gradually. A modified release medicine that has been damaged may cause the entire dose to be released earlier than intended.
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The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines. True or false?.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with hypertension and is at risk for preterm labor. What drug will be administered
When the nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis, what intervention can be provided in order to prevent atelectasis and prevent pooling of respiratory secretions?
Position modifications must be made often to avoid atelectasis and the accumulation of respiratory secretions.
What is atelectasis?The term "atelectasis" refers to the total or partial collapse of a lung or lung lobe. Alveolar fluid may also fill the tiny air sacs (alveoli) within the lung, which causes it to deflate. One of the most frequent breathing (respiratory) side effects following surgery is atelectasis. It may also develop as a side effect of other respiratory conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, lung tumors, chest wounds, fluid in the lungs, and respiratory weakness. If you breathe in a foreign object, you could develop atelectasis. Breathing might be challenging while at atelectasis, especially if you already have lung disease. The course of treatment is determined by the reason and extent of the collapse.
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A client in labor is attached to an electronic fetal monitor (efm). which finding by an efm indicates adequate uteroplacental and fetal perfusion?
Fetal heart rate variability within 5 to 10 beats/minute
What is electronic fetal monitor (efm) ?The moment has arrived. As your child is about to be born, you are headed to the hospital. You meet the nurse who will connect you to a monitoring device that will track both your contractions and the heartbeat of the unborn child. What is this, and why is it crucial for your unborn child's care. The sole means through which the fetus can interact with the healthcare professionals is through electronic fetal monitoring (EFM). EFM is a method used by medical professionals to assess how well your baby is doing during labor and delivery. It counts uterine contractions and fetal heartbeat.
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Drug use that is not common within a social group and that is disapproved of by the majority, causing members of a group to take corrective action when it occurs is?
Drug use that is not common within a social group and that is disapproved of by the majority, causing members of a group to take corrective action when it occurs is called deviant drug use.
What is drug?Any molecule that, when consumed, alters the physiology or psychology of an organism qualifies as a drug. Usually, foods and other substances that help nutrition are segregated from drugs. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed via the skin using a patch, suppository, or dissolved under the tongue. In pharmacology, a drug is a chemical compound, usually one with a well-known structure, that, when given to a living thing, has a biological impact. A pharmaceutical drug is a chemical compound that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose an illness, as well as to improve wellbeing. It is also known as a medication or medicine. In the past, drugs were extracted from medicinal plants, but more recently, they were also created organically. Pharmaceutical medications may be taken for a brief time or on an as-needed basis.
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Explain the personal, interpersonal, and societal consequences, of the use and abuse of alcohol and other drugs.
Answer: you could hurts others and go to jail
Explanation:
A client has presented to the clinic reporting various symptoms indicating she may have fibroids in her uterus. which client symptoms would the nurse expect? select all that apply.
b.) Low back pain ; d.) Dyspareunia ; c.) Menorrhagia , a.) bloating are the client symptoms would the nurse expect.
Noncancerous uterine growths known as uterine fibroids are common during the childbearing years. Uterine fibroids, also known as leiomyomasbor myomas, don't enhance the risk of uterine cancer and hardly ever turn cancerous.
Many women with fibroids have no symptoms at all. The location, size, and quantity of fibroids in individuals who do can affect symptoms. The most typical uterine fibroids symptoms and indicators in women who experience them are as follows:
extreme menstrual bleedinglonger than a week's worth of menstrual cyclesPelvic pressure or discomfortoften urinatingbladder emptying challengeConstipationLeg or back discomfortHere is another question with an answer similar to this about fibroids: https://brainly.com/question/20030284
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Question correction:
A client has presented to the clinic reporting various symptoms indicating she may have Fibroids in her uterus Which client symptoms should the nurse expect ? (Select all that apply)
a.) bloating
b.) low back pain
c.)menorrhagia
d.)dyspareunia
e.)diarrhea
Which cancer has a poor prognosis, and death is usually within 2 to 3 years as a result of infection and kidney failure?
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) has the poor prognosis, and death is usually within 2 to 3 years as a result of infection and by kidney failure
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) is one of the most common type of the kidney cancer. Although it's was serious disease, finding and treating it early as makes it more likely that you'll be cured. RCC can also often be cured if it is diagnosed and then treated surgically while they still confined to the kidney and then immediately surrounding tissue. The probability of the cure was commensurate with the degree or the stage of the tumor dissemination About 9 out of 10 of the kidney cancers are renal cell carcinomas. Although RCC usually grows as the single tumor within a kidney, after sometimes there are 2 or more tumors in one kidney or even the tumors in both kidneys at the same time.
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In ________ therapy, dream interpretation and transference are used to uncover repressed defenses and unconscious wishes.
In Psychoanalytic therapy, dream interpretation and transference are used to uncover repressed defenses and unconscious wishes.
Based on Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theories, psychoanalytic therapy is a type of talk therapy. The method looks at the role that your unconscious mind plays in determining your attitudes, emotions, and actions.
In particular, it looks at how your past experiences, frequently from infancy, may be influencing how you feel and act right now. Since Freud's day, psychoanalytic treatments for emotional problems have made significant progress.
In psychoanalytic treatment, patients frequently have at least weekly meetings with their analyst. They could continue seeing a therapist for years or even for months.
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do multiple sclerosis symptoms moderate the relationship between self-efficacy and physical activity in people with multiple sclerosis?
The potential contribution of MS symptoms, particularly anxiety, to the explanation of physical activity patterns in a group of inactive MS patients (pwMS).
Both behavior modification interventions and baseline analyzes from randomized controlled trials were used. There were 59 physically inactive people with a confirmed diagnosis of MS.The participant was instructed to record his 7-day target PA using a SenseWear wristband. Measures of self-efficacy (exercise self-efficacy scale), walking time (6-minute walking test), walking effort (12-item MS walking scale), anxiety and depression (Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale [HADS]), and fatigue (Modified Fatigue Impact Scale) was also performed. Moderation analysis and Pearson correlation were performed. PA was positively correlated with self-efficacy. Using moderation analysis, a significant interaction was shown between anxiety and self-efficacy, with lower levels of anxiety showing a stronger association.MS and physical activity has a positive correlation.
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Why is the use of fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states?.
fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states because Fetal monitors have high rates of false readings for fetal distress
Electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), regardless of risk status, is employed constantly throughout labor in many hospitals in the United States. Application of Electronic fetal monitoring EFM, especially around the time of labor admission, may set off a series of interventions that raise the likelihood of caesarean delivery in low-risk women. This review's objectives were to identify research gaps and synthesize the available data on the use of EFM in low-risk work situations.
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a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has asthma and a new prescription for inhaled beclomethasone. which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
The nurse should tell the client to rinse mouth after administration.
Asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are treated with beclomethasone inhalers, also known as "buffer" (COPD). They are often dark or beige in color and are called "prophylactic" inhalers.If you have COPD or asthma, they can help you avoid developing symptoms. Beclomethasone inhalers can only be purchased by people with a prescription. Beclomethasone is mixed with other drugs that help you breathe in some inhalers. Use your beclomethasone inhaler daily to keep it working, even if you don't have symptoms. This will protect against infections and mouth sores.Therefore, rinsing of mouth is very important.
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